Wow. I should never underestimate the power of a footnote in order to start up a huge discussion.
You should never underestimate the power of dismissing someone else's field ;)
Still, I do detect a big leap of logic there.
I will refrain from commenting on the irony of this statement.
So the Egyptians did not use slaves to built the pyramids. I already knew that. Does that mean however that they didn't use slaves for OTHER projects as well?
that would contraven the 40 Principles of Ma'at, and upsets the Rule of Ma'at? Because the concept of owning other people was alien to their pretty well isolationistic society? Because to owe your alleigance to anyone other than He Of The Sedge And The Bee and the gods could be perceived as blasphemy, likewise to demand it?
Like ship galleys?
No need. Egyptian navy was pretty small.
Serving rich nobles?
They could hire servants.
Maybe to help out farming?
That's what your children, wife and extended family were for.
I find it hard to believe that Egyptains would hate slavery.
That's your issue, you deal with it :)
Why would Egyptains not use slaves? Simple, they already got themselves a free labor source, the farmers who are out of jobs when the farming season is over. They need work, so they get sent over to build the pyramids. Why import new workers when you already got home-grown workers as well.
Yep. For a third of the year, during Achet, they've got nothing to do.
Does it debunk the Israeli immigration story? Er...I don't think so. All it says is that the Israelis were enslaved (or thought they were enslaved). What jobs they were sent to do? No one knows, but we do know they weren't building pyramids.
They weren't enslaved, we can say that much. At least, not literally. Probably, they were an ethnic minority in Egypt. And it is quite possible that while one ruler promised they could come in, another would say 'no' to their requests to leave. It does seem that they took with them, however, parts of the Egyptian legal code, which then was used in the Promised Land. Certainly, there are interesting parallels. Exactly what happened we are unsure, but it does seem likely that if they were in Egypt, they left sometime during the reign of Merneptah.
...But I find the last point, that Egypt was the forerunner to our society, the most distrubting. Equality? Pah! Tell that to the Egyptain peasent who has to be buried in the sand while his ruler, a God amongst men, gets intombed with huge pyrmaids.
And if his ruler didn't perform his job and make the Nile rise every year, the sun rise every morning, protect the frontiers, appease the gods, build the temples etc, his neck was on the line.
In their religion, the king will have a great afterlife, while all the peasents get is a chance to farm the soil for an eterinty.
Curious that they seemed quite content with this, then, isn't it?
That's not equailty, that's Nietczhean slavery!
Maybe so, but the mortals? Were equal.
You couldn't explain any of this to an Egyptian peasant, anyway - he/she would have no point of reference.
I find the equality of women thing extremely hard to swallow, along with the glowing belief that Egyptians were allegedly enlightened about slavery.
Link (
http://oi.uchicago.edu/OI/DEPT/RA/OBRIEN_DISSPROP_TEXT.HTML)
Link (
http://www.stoa.org/diotima/essays/wardlect.shtml)
Enlightened regarding slavery? Perhaps. Certainly there were few slaves in Egypt. The only slavery really conducted was the taking of prisoners of war, who could be treated as possessions of their captor. That was about the limit of it, though.
Sure, not enlightened by our standards, but you cannot judge history by absolute moral standards - to do so is a fool's errand, and besides, what will people say of us in 15,000 years?. By the culture of the time, it was a very enlightened situation.
Link (
http://www.touregypt.net/featurestories/slaves.htm)
Given the general widespread view of women as second-class citizens and relatively common presence of slavery in that entire region, it just sounds too good to be true.
Those societies grew from the Proto-Indo-European root. When those societies were just in their first beginnings, Egypt was already old.
The Greeks and Romans had lots of Goddesses, and they nonetheless treated women as inferior to men for the most part. It's only been in the last 30 years or so that women have achieved something remotely close to equality, and we've got a long way to go still.
The Greco-Roman attitude to women may have something to do with the Greek myth that the gods created women as a punishment for men...
It is interesting to note, however, that prior to the Reformation, women seem to have a much larger degree of liberty than afterwards. For example, the Wife of Bath in Chaucer's Canterbury Tales runs her own business. She can talk in public with whomever she pleases and is, in short, a lot more free than, say, a woman in the 18th century.
As stoffe said, history has had its ups and downs, and is not a uniform gradient upwards in terms of rights, or indeed anything else :)